(VIDEO) Benami Asset : Lok Sabha TV Insight Discussion

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UPSC IAS (Pre.) General Studies Categorized Exam (Paper - 1) - 2012

Ancient History

1. Lord Buddha’s image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture called ‘Bhumisparsha Mudra’. It symbolizes

(a) Buddha’s calling of the Earth to watch over Mara and to prevent Mara from disturbing his meditation
(b) Buddha’s calling of the Earth to witness his purity and chastity despite the temptations of Mara
(c) Buddha’s reminder to his followers that they all arise from the Earth and finally dissolve into the Earth, and thus this life is transitory
(d) Both the statements (a) and (b) are correct in this context

2. The religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily of

(a) Bhakti
(b) image worship and Yajnas
(c) worship of nature and Yajnas
(d) worship of nature and Bhakti

3. With reference to the guilds (Shreni) of ancient India that played a very important role in the country’s economy, which of the following statements is /are correct?

1. Every guild was registered with the central authority of the State and the king was the chief administrative authority on them.
2. The wages, rules of work, standards and prices were fixed by the guild.
3. The guild had judicial powers over its own members.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

4. With reference to the scientific progress of ancient India, which of the statements given below are correct?

1. Different kinds of specialized surgical instruments were in common use by 1st century AD.
2. Transplant of internal organs in the human body had begun by the beginning of 3rd century AD.
3. The concept of sine of an angle was known in 5th century AD.
4. The concept of cyclic quadrilaterals was known in 7th century AD.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

5. With reference to the history. of ancient India, which of the following was/were common to both Buddhism and Jainism?

1. Avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment
2. Indifference to the authority of the Vedas
3. Denial of efficacy of rituals

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Medieval History

6. With reference to the religious history of medieval India, the Sufi mystics were known to pursue which of the following practices?

1. Meditation and control of breath
2. Severe ascetic exercises in a lonely place
3. Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of ecstasy in their audience

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Modern History

7. Consider the following statements :

The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Naoroji to the cause of Indian National Movement was that he

1. exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British
2. interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored the self-confidence of Indians
3. stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before anything else

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

8. The Rowlatt Act aimed at

(a) compulsory economic support to war efforts
(b) imprisonment without trial and summary procedures for trial
(c) suppression of the Khilafat Movement
(d) imposition of restrictions on freedom of the press

9. The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (1929) is very important in history, because

1. the Congress passed a resolution demanding complete independence
2. the rift between the extremists and moderates was resolved in that Session
3. a resolution was passed rejecting the two-nation theory in that Session

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None of the above

10. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Brahmo Samaj?

1. It opposed idolatry.
2. It denied the need for a priestly class for interpreting the religious texts.
3. It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are infallible.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

11. Consider the following :

1. Assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature of the soil and the quality of crops
2. Use of mobile cannons in warfare
3. Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies

Which of the above was/were introduced into India by the English?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) None

12. The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the

(a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
(b) Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947

13. The Congress ministries resigned in the seven provinces in 1939, because

(a) the Congress could not form ministries in the other four provinces
(b) emergence of a left wing’ in the Congress made the working of the ministries impossible
(c) there were widespread communal disturbances in their provinces
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct

14. Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?

1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces
2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

15. During Indian freedom struggle, the National Social Conference was formed. What was the reason for its formation?

(a) Different social reform groups or organizations of Bengal region united to form a single body to discuss the issues of larger interest and to prepare appropriate petitions/representations to the government.
(b) Indian National Congress did not want to include social reforms in its deliberations and decided to form a separate body for such a purpose
(c) Behramji Malabari and M. G. Ranade decided to bring together all the social reform groups of the country under one organization
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

16. Which of the following parties were established by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar?

1. The Peasants and Workers Party of India
2. All India Scheduled Castes Federation
3. The Independent Labour Party

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

17. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?

(a) To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State
(b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services
(c) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement
(d) To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners

18. Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in 1932, mainly because

(a) Round Table Conference failed to satisfy Indian political aspirations
(b) Congress and Muslim League had differences of opinion
(c) Ramsay Macdonald announced the Communal Award
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

19. With reference to Ryotwari Settlement, consider the following statements :

1. The rent was paid directly by the peasants to the Government.
2. The Government gave Pattas to the Ryots.
3. The lands were surveyed and assessed before being taxed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

Geography

20. To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In this context, what advantage does thorium hold over uranium?

1. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium.
2. On the basis of per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium.
3. Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to uranium.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

21. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs

(a) the water vapour of the air and retains its heat
(b) the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation
(c) all the solar radiations
(d) the infrared part of the solar radiation

22. Despite having large reserves of coal, why does India import millions of tonnes of coal?

1. It is the policy of India to save its own coal reserves for future, and import it from other countries for the present use.
2. M ost of the power plants in India are coal-based and they are not able to get sufficient supplies of coal from within the country.
3. Steel companies need large quantity of coking coal which has to be imported.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

23. Recently, there has been a concern over the short supply of a group of elements called ‘rare earth metals’. Why?

1. China, which is the largest producer of these elements, has imposed some restrictions on their export.
2. Other than China, Australia, Canada and Chile, these elements are not found in any country.
3. Rare earth metals are essential for the manufacture of various kinds of electronic items and there is a growing demand for these elements.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

24. Consider the following statements :

1. The duration of the monsoon decreases from southern India to northern India.
2. The amount of annual rainfall in the northern plains of India decreases from east to west.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

25. Which one of the following is the characteristic climate of the Tropical Savannah Region?

(a) Rainfall throughout the year
(b) Rainfall in winter only
(c) An extremely short dry season
(d) A definite dry and wet season

26. What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx and Chiru?

(a) Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas Chiru is adapted to live in steppes and semi-desert areas of cold high mountains
(b) Oryx is poached for its antlers whereas Chiru is poached for its musk
(c) Oryx exists in western India only whereas Chiru exists in north-east India only
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct

27. Which of the following is the chief characteristic of ‘mixed farming’?

(a) Cultivation of both cash crops and food crops
(b) Cultivation of two or more crops in the same field
(c) Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops together
(d) None of the above

28. A particular State in India has the following characteristics :

1. It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern Rajasthan.
2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.
3. Over 12% of forest cover constitutes Protected Area Network in this State.

Which one among the following States has all the above characteristics?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Assam
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Uttarakhand

29. Consider the following crops of India :

1. Cowpea
2. Green gram
3. Pigeon pea

Which of the above is/are used as pulse, fodder and green manure?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

30. Consider the following factors:

1. Rotation of the Earth
2. Air pressure and wind
3. Density of ocean water
4. Revolution of the Earth

Which of the above factors influence the ocean currents?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4

31. Consider the following crops of India :

1. Groundnut
2. Sesamum
3. Pearl millet

Which of the above is/are predomi-nantly rainfed crop/crops?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

32. When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the following :

1. Deep gorges
2. U-turn river courses
3. Parallel mountain ranges
4. Steep gradients causing land-sliding

Which of the above can be said to be the evidences for Himalayas being young fold mountains?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

33. Normally, the temperature decreases with the increase in height from the Earth’s surface, because

1. the atmosphere can be heated upwards only from the Earth’s surface
2. there is more moisture in the upper atmosphere
3. the air is less dense in the upper atmosphere

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Science & Technology

34. Which one of the following sets of elements was primarily responsible for the origin of life on the Earth?

(a) Hydrogen, Oxygen, Sodium
(b) Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen
(c) Oxygen, Calcium, Phosphorus
(d) Carbon, Hydrogen, Potassium

35. Other than resistance to pests, what are the prospects for which genetically engineered plants have been created?

1. To enable them to withstand drought
2. To increase the nutritive value of the produce
3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and space stations
4. To increase their shelf life

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

36. Consider the following kinds of organisms :

1. Bat
2. Bee
3. Bird

Which of the above is/are pollinating agent/agents?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

37. Consider the following statements :

If there were no phenomenon of capillarity

1. it would be difficult to use a kerosene lamp
2. one would not be able to use a straw to consume a soft drink
3. the blotting paper would fail to function
4. the big trees that we see around would not have grown on the Earth

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

38. Consider the following kinds of organisms :

1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Flowering plants

Some species of which of the above kinds of organisms are employed as biopesticides?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

39. Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the sustainable solutions to the power crisis in India. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can be used in biomass gasification.
2. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification consist of hydrogen and carbon dioxide only.
3. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can be used for direct heat generation but not in internal combustion engines.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

40. What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems?

1. It inactivates /kills the harmful microorganisms in water.
2. It removes all the undesirable odours from the water.
3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

41. Graphene is frequently in news recently. What is its importance?

1. It is a two-dimensional material and has good electrical conductivity.
2. It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials tested so far.
3. It is entirely made of silicon and has high optical transparency.
4. It can be used as ‘conducting electrodes’ required for touch screens, LCDs and organic LEDs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

42. Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health hazard. After the addition of lead to petrol has been banned, what still are the sources of lead poisoning?

1. Smelting units
2. Pens and pencils
3. Paints
4. Hair oils and cosmetics

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

43. With reference to ‘stem cells’, frequently in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Stem cells can be derived from mammals only.
2. Stem cells can be used for screening new drugs.
3. Stem cells can be used for medical therapies.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

44. Consider the following statements :

Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone-depleting substances, are used

1. in the production of plastic foams
2. in the production of tubeless tyres
3. in cleaning certain electronic components
4. as pressurizing agents in aerosol cans

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

45. A team of scientists at Brookhaven National Laboratory including those from India created the heaviest anti-matter (anti-helium nucleus). What is/are the implication/ implications of the creation of anti-matter?

1. It will make mineral prospecting and oil exploration easier and cheaper.
2. It will help probe the possibility of the existence of stars and galaxies made of anti-matter.
3. It will help understand the evolution of the universe.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

46. Which of the following is /are cited by the scientists as evidence/ evidences for the continued expansion of universe?

1. Detection of microwaves in space
2. Observation of redshift phenomenon in space
3. Movement of asteroids in space
4. Occurrence of supernova explosions in space

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) None of the above can be cited as evidence

47. Electrically charged particles from space travelling at speeds of several hundred km/sec can severely harm living beings if they reach the surface of the Earth.

What prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth?

(a) The Earth’s magnetic field diverts them towards its poles
(b) Ozone layer around the Earth reflects them back to outer space
(c) Moisture in the upper layers of atmosphere prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct

Economy

48. Consider the following:

1. Hotels and restaurants
2. Motor transport undertakings
3. Newspaper establishments
4. Private medical institutions

The employees of which of the above can have the ‘Social Security’ coverage under Employees’ State Insurance Scheme?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

49. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers’ bank. This would imply which of the following?

1. Other banks retain their deposits with the RBI.
2. The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need.
3. The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

50. Under which of the following circumstances may ‘capital gains’ arise?

1. When there is an increase in the sales of a product
2. When there is a. natural increase in the value of the property owned
3. When you purchase a painting and there is a growth in its value due to increase in its popularity

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

51. Which of the following measures would result in an increase in the money supply in the economy?

1. Purchase of government securities from the public by the Central Bank
2. Deposit of currency in commercial banks by the public
3. Borrowing by the government from the Central Bank
4. Sale of government securities to the public by the Central Bank

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4

52. Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment in India?

1. Subsidiaries of companies in India
2. Majority foreign equity holding in Indian companies
3. Companies exclusively financed by foreign companies
4. Portfolio investment

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

53. Consider the following statements: The price of any currency in international market is decided by the

1. World Bank
2. demand for goods/services provided by the country concerned
3. stability of the government of the concerned country
4. economic potential of the country in question

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 4 only

54. The basic aim of Lead Bank Scheme is that

(a) big banks should try to open offices in each district
(b) there should be stiff competition among the various nationalized banks
(c) individual banks should adopt particular districts for intensive development
(d) all the banks should make intensive efforts to mobilize deposits

55. Which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of Inclusive Governance?

1. Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies to do banking
2. Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the districts
3. Increasing the government spending on public health
4. Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

56. The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following?

1. Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at household level
2. Purchasing power parity at national level
3. Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at national level

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

57. Which of the following is /are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission?

1. A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design
2. A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with India’s demographic dividend
3. Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

58. What is/are the recent policy initiative(s) of Government of India to promote the growth of manufacturing sector?

1. Setting up of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones
2. Providing the benefit of ‘single window clearance’
3. Establishing the Technology Acquisition and Development Fund

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

59. Consider the following specific stages of demographic transition associated with economic development :

1. Low birthrate with low death rate
2. High birthrate with high death rate
3. High birthrate with low death rate

Select the correct order of the above stages using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 2, 1, 3
(c) 2, 3, 1
(d) 3, 2, 1

60. In India, in the overall Index of Industrial Production, the Indices of Eight Core Industries have a combined weight of 37-90%. Which of the following are among those Eight Core Industries?

1. Cement
2. Fertilizers
3. Natural gas
4. Refinery products
5. Textiles

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 5 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Polity

61. In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?

1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

62. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment

(a) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the” Houses within six months
(b) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months
(c) must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament
(d) must be a member of the Lok Sabha

63. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements :

1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

64. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?

1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

65. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of

1. Ordinary Legislation
2. Money Bill
3. Constitution Amendment Bill

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

66. How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) help in the reduction of rural poverty in India?

1. DRDAs act as Panchayati Raj Institutions in certain specified backward regions of the country.
2. DRDAs undertake area-specific scientific study of the causes of poverty and malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial measures.
3. DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination and cooperation for effective implementation of anti-poverty programmes.
4. D RDAs watch over and ensure effective utilization of the funds intended for anti-poverty programmes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

67. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?

1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

68. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?

1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.
2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.
3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.
4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

69. In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?

1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.
2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

70. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is

(a) to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance
(b) to let opposition members collect information from the ministers
(c) to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant
(d) to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members

71. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?

1. Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21
2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1)
3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

72. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India :

1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code
2. Organizing village Panchayats
3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities

Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

73. Consider the following statements:

1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.
2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None

74. With reference to consumers’ rights/ privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.
2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.
3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

75. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:

1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

76. Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State
3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory
4. A dispute between two or more States

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 3 and 4

77. Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India?

1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament
2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill
3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account
4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office
5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

78. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?

1. Directive Principles of State Policy
2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies
3. Fifth Schedule
4. Sixth Schedule
5. Seventh Schedule

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Ecology

79. What are the reasons for the people’s resistance to the introduction of Bt brinjal in India?

1. Bt brinjal has been created by inserting a gene from a soil fungus into its genome.
2. The seeds of Bt brinjal are terminator seeds and therefore, the farmers have to buy the seeds before every season from the seed companies.
3. There is an apprehension that the consumption of Bt brinjal may have adverse impact on health.
4. There is some concern that the introduction of Bt brinjal may have adverse effect on the biodiversity.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

80. Consider the following areas:

1. Bandipur
2. Bhitarkanika
3. Manas
4. Sunderbans

Which of the above are Tiger Reserves?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) l, 2, 3 and 4

81. In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are local people not allowed to collect and use the biomass?

(a) Biosphere Reserves
(b) National Parks
(c) Wetlands declared under Ramsar Convention
(d) Wildlife Sanctuaries

82. Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to the category of endangered species?

(a) Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass
(b) Kashmir Stag, Cheetal, Blue Bull and Great Indian Bustard
(c) Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus Monkey and Saras (Crane)
(d) Lion-tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur and Cheetal

83. The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment describes the following major categories of ecosystem services-provisioning, supporting, regulating, preserving and cultural. Which one of the following is supporting service?

(a) Production of food and water
(b) Control of climate and disease
(c) Nutrient cycling and crop pollination
(d) Maintenance of diversity

84. Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area?

1. Global warming
2. Fragmentation of habitat
3. Invasion of alien species
4. Promotion of vegetarianism

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

85. Consider the following :

1. Black-necked crane
2. Cheetah
3. Flying squirrel
4. Snow leopard

Which of the above are naturally found in India?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

86. Consider the following agricultural practices:

1. Contour bunding
2. Relay cropping
3. Zero tillage

In the context of global climate change, which of the above helps/help in carbon seques-tration/storage in the soil?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of them

87. What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for some reason?

1. The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected.
2. The food chains in the ocean would be adversely affected.
3. The density of ocean water would drastically decrease.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

88. Vultures which used to be very common in Indian countryside some years ago are rarely seen nowadays. This is attributed to

(a) the destruction of their nesting sites by new invasive species
(b) a drug used by cattle owners for treating their diseased cattle
(c) scarcity of food available to them
(d) a widespread, persistent and fatal disease among them

89. How does National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in protecting the Indian agriculture?

1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional genetic resources.
2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific research on genetic modifi-cation of crop plants.
3. Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to genetic/biological resources cannot be made without the approval of NBA.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

(a) 1 -only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

90. If National Water Mission is properly and completely implemented, how will it impact the country?

1. Part of the water needs of urban areas will be met through recycling of wastewater.
2. The water requirements of coastal cities with inadequate alternative sources of water will be met by adopting appropriate technologies that allow for the use of ocean water.
3. All the rivers of Himalayan origin will be linked to the rivers of peninsular India,
4. The expenses incurred by farmers for digging bore-wells and for installing motors and pump-sets to draw groundwater will be completely reimbursed by the Government.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

91. Government of India encourages the cultivation of ‘sea buckthorn’. What is the importance of this plant?

1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in preventing desertification.
2. It is a rich source of biodiesel.
3. It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live in cold areas of high altitudes.
4. Its timber is of great commercial value.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

92. With reference to the wetlands of India, consider the following statements :

1. The country’s total geographical area under the category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujarat as compared to other States.
2. In India, the total geographical area of coastal wetlands larger than that of wetlands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

93. The acidification of oceans is increasing. Why is this phenomenon a cause of concern?

1. The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected.
2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely affected.
3. The survival of some animals that have phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely affected.
4. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely affected.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Others

94. A person stood alone in a desert on a dark night and wanted to reach his village which was situated 5 km east of the point where he was standing. He had no instruments to find the direction but he located the polestar. The most convenient way now to reach his village is to walk in the

(a) direction facing the polestar
(b) direction opposite to the polestar
(c) direction keeping the polestar to his left
(d) direction keeping the polestar to his right

95. With reference to Dhrupad, one of the major traditions of India that has been kept alive for centuries, which of the following statements are correct?

1. Dhrupad originated and developed in the Rajput kingdoms during the Mughal period.
2. Dhrupad is primarily a devotional and spiritual music.
3. Dhrupad Alap uses Sanskrit syllables from Mantras.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above is correct

96. How do you distinguish between Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dances?

1. Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues is found in Kuchipudi dance but not in Bharatanatyam.
2. Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a feature of Bharatanatyam but Kuchipudi dance does not have such a form of movements.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

97. The Nagara, the Dravida and the Vesara are the

(a) three main racial groups of the Indian subcontinent
(b) three main linguistic divisions into which the languages of India can be classified
(c) three main styles of Indian temple architecture
(d) three main musical Gharanas prevalent in India

98. The endeavour of ‘Janani Suraksha Yojana’ Programme is

1. to promote institutional deliveries
2. to provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery
3. to provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinement

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

99. With reference to National Rural Health Mission, which of the following are the jobs of ‘ASHA’, a trained community health worker?

1. Accompanying women to the health facility for antenatal care checkup
2. Using pregnancy test kits for early detection of pregnancy
3. Providing information on nutrition and immunization
4. Conducting the delivery of baby

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 Only
(b) 2 and 4 Only
(c) 1 and 3 Only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

100. How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve livelihood options of rural poor?

1. By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and agribusiness centres in rural areas
2. By strengthening ‘self-help groups’ and providing skill development
3. By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets and micro-irrigation equipment free of cost to farmers

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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• Exam: IAS (Pre.)

• Year: 2014

• Subject: General Studies

• Paper: I

• Medium: Hindi

• Booklet No: A

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Current Affairs for UPSC Exams - 6 June 2017

::National::

India says it has signed the agreement for protection of climate

• India rejected U.S. President's allegation that it had joined the Paris climate agreement for a large financial incentive.
• External Affairs Minister Sushma Swaraj described the allegation as “unreal” and said India did not join the agreement for “financial greed.”
• We signed the agreement for our commitment to protection of climate,” Ms. Swaraj said, explaining the reasons for India joining the agreement.
• “Worship of forests, worship of rivers, worship of mountains continue even now in India. These actions are part of India’s ethos that are five thousand years old. These are all heritage of India.
• That is why I am rejecting the allegations completely and that is why India will continue to remain in the Paris agreement framework, whether the U.S. continues in it or not,” she said.
• Ms. Swaraj also flagged the growing focus on H-1B visas in the U.S. as an Indian concern, and said the government was alert to the risks on this front. “Since 2004 a cap has been in place for 65,000 visas.
• There are no changes in the lottery process and in visas for our Ph. D students; but, yes, we have concerns.
• I want to assure the country that we are in touch with U.S. Congress members and the Trump administration so that no amendments are brought to the law so that Indian interests are not hurt.”
• The External Affairs Minister said that as of now, there were no plans of a meeting between Mr. Modi and his Pakistani counterpart Nawaz Sharif on the sidelines of the SCO summit scheduled in Astana for June 8 and 9.
• “We are willing for talks on all issues. Second, talks should be held between two parties. Third, terror and talks will not go ahead together — these are our three pillars.
• Pakistan needs to create humane conditions for facilitating humanitarian ties with India. I myself went for the Heart of Asia summit, but within a week we were given the attack on Pathankot,” she said.

Decision of West Asian countries to cut all ties with Qatar would not impact India

• The government and energy officials said that the decision by seven West Asian countries, led by Saudi Arabia, to cut all ties with Qatar would have “no impact” on Indian interests.
• While most analysts say the move will not have an immediate effect, there will be repercussions for India too if the tensions continue and differences are not resolved.
• To begin with, India has tried to maintain a balance in the region, given the immense stakes and has traditionally stayed out of the “Shia-Sunni”, “Arab-Persian” or “Wahabbi-Salafi” divides thus far.
• With Qatar now estranged from Saudi Arabia and its allies, a further fragmenting West Asia will require even more deft diplomacy to keep these ties untouched by the tensions.
• Prime Minister Narendra Modi visited Qatar and received Emir Al-Thani in 2016 and has also forged very close strategic partnerships with the UAE and Saudi Arabia, which are crucial to his outreach in the region.
• India sources more than half of its energy import needs from countries in the Persian Gulf. Six million Indians live and work in West Asia and they sent home about $63 billion last year.
• Energy imports may not be affected immediately, unless the Gulf countries follow through with sanctions.
• However, as in the case of Yemen, Libya, Lebanon and other countries, any tensions in the region have an immediate impact on thousands of Indian workers.
• In Qatar in particular, there are 6,00,000 Indian workers, many of them on projects related to the 2022 FIFA world cup. Several Indian companies such as L&T have won contracts in constructing stadiums.
• In addition, India has significant trade ties with the country (Qatar is India’s 19th biggest trading partner, with about $9 billion in trade), though its trade ties are much stronger with the UAE and Saudi Arabia.
• After Mr. Modi’s visits in the region, India had hoped for considerable investments from both the UAE and Qatar’s Sovereign Wealth Funds.
• Besides cutting off diplomatic ties, the Saudi coalition has also decided to cancel Qatar Airways flights to their countries. This will affect Indian passengers who want to use Doha as a hub to get to other destinations in the Gulf.
• Saudi Arabia and the UAE are important partners for India on counter-terrorism cooperation and intelligence sharing.
• Yet it can’t be denied that together with Qatar, these countries have supported extremist groups that now control parts of Afghanistan, Syria and Iraq.
• Saudi Arabia now accuses Qatar of supporting IS and Al-Qaeda, washing its hands of its own previous support to rebels. It remains to be seen what impact it will have on the global war on terror.

India in group of nations having their own indigenous cryogenic engine technology

• India leapfrogged into a select group of nations having their own indigenous cryogenic engine technology, when the ISRO successfully launched its heaviest launch vehicle, GSLV MkIII-D1, and placed the country’s heaviest satellite till date, GSAT-19, into a precise orbit.
• The GSAT-19, a communication satellite, expected to enhance India’s communication infrastructure, was placed into a Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit with a perigee 170 km and apogee 35,975 km.
• The satellite weighs 3,136 kg. This successful launch will enable India to launch 4-tonne class satellites from India. These were earlier launched from launch pads abroad.
• ISRO has been trying to master development of an indigenous cryogenic for decades and has used indigenous cryogenic engines on earlier GSLV flights but modelled mainly on Russian design.
• On this GSLV, no technological element was borrowed or adapted from any other space organisation.
• The GSAT-19 carries a Ka/Ku-band high throughput communication transponders. It also carries a Geostationary Radiation Spectrometer (GRASP) payload to monitor and study the nature of charged particles and the influence of space radiation on satellites and their electronic components.
• The spacecraft will open up a lot of new vistas in the field of Internet connectivity, broadband connectivity.
• The successful launch of the GSLV MkIII- D1 also opens up business opportunities for ISRO.
• Two launches are coming up, which will however, happen from Ariane in French Guiana. The first one scheduled for June 28, will be the GSAT 18, a 3.3 tonne satellite, and the second one will be a 5.8 tonne satellite.
• Work is on to launch two approved missions — Aditya-L1 and Chandrayaan-II — in the next two years.

313 species of animal and 186 of plants discovered in the country last year

• On World Environment Day, India has 499 reasons to cheer: 313 species of animal and 186 of plants have been discovered from various areas of the country last year.
• Animal Discoveries 2016, New Species and Records , brought out by the Zoological Survey of India on Monday, and Plant Discoveries 2016 , by the Botanical Survey of India, bring the glad tidings.
• Of the new animal species, 258 are invertebrates and 55 vertebrates. As many as 97 species of insects, 27 of fish, 12 species of amphibians, 10 of Platyhelminthes, nine of Crustacea and six of reptiles have been discovered and described by the scientists.
• There are 61 species of moths and butterflies (order Lepidoptera) and 38 of beetles (Coloeptera).
• Most of the new species were from the four biological hotspots of the country — the Himalayas, the Northeast, the Western Ghats and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
• Animal Discoveries 2016 says that for the first time, the number of animal species in the country, including protozoa, has crossed one lakh — 1,00,693 is the exact count.
• Plant Discoveries 2016 says that along with 186 new species, scientists have discovered seven new genera, four subspecies and nine new varieties from India, taking the number to 206.
• The geographical distribution of the new plant species reveals that most discoveries were made in the Western Ghats (17%), followed by the Eastern Himalayas (15%), the Western Himalayas (13%), the Eastern Ghats (12%) and the west coast (8%).

International

Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates isolated Qatar

• Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates, emboldened by U.S. President Donald Trump’s new approach to the region, have seized the chance to isolate Qatar, analysts said.
• Gas-rich Doha, which has long exercised an independent streak in its foreign policy, last month denied comments which appeared on its official news agency questioning U.S. hostility towards Iran.
• Qatar blamed hackers for a string of explosive remarks attributed to its Emir Sheikh Tamim bin Hamad Al-Thani after Mr. Trump visited Saudi Arabia, its giant neighbour.
• The reputed remarks were a slap in the face to Riyadh and Abu Dhabi, Sunni monarchies which have embraced Mr. Trump and his harder line against Shia-dominated Iran.
• Saudi Arabia, the UAE, Yemen, Bahrain and Egypt all severed diplomatic ties with Doha.
• The Islamist group was founded in Egypt about 90 years ago and has spread throughout the region.
• Saudi Arabia, Egypt and the UAE all declared it a “terrorist group” after a Brotherhood government, led by Mohamed Morsi, won democratic elections in Egypt before being overthrown by the military in 2013.
• Qatar-backed Mr. Morsi in a dispute that led Bahrain, Saudi Arabia and the UAE to withdraw their Ambassadors from Doha for several months in 2014. Doha, nonetheless, has continued to shelter many leaders of Mr. Morsi’s Brotherhood.
• The campaign aims to force non-Arab states to take sides and “persuade the Trump administration to come down hard on Qatar because of its refusal to join the anti-Iranian Saudi bandwagon and its ties to Islamist and militant groups.
• Qatar is also home to the former leader of Hamas, Khaled Meshaal, who has lived in exile for several years in Doha.
• Qatar has been criticised for supporting Islamist rebels in Syria, and in 2013, the Afghan Taliban opened a Doha office.

Nepal has signed an agreement with China to build the largest hydroelectric plant

• Nepal has signed an agreement with a Chinese company to build the largest hydroelectric plant in the impoverished landlocked country, which suffers from a chronic energy shortage.
• Nepal’s Energy Minister signed the agreement for the China Gezhouba Group Corporation to build the long-mooted 1,200 megawatt Budhi-Gandaki hydroelectric project.
• The agreement was signed at the Prime Minister’s residence, in the presence of outgoing Prime Minister of Nepal Pushpa Kamal Dahal ‘Prachanda’ and Chinese Ambassador to Nepal Yu Hong.
• Estimates put the project cost at $2.5 billion. A financing agreement will be signed later.
• Water-rich Nepal has a mountain river system that could make it an energy-producing powerhouse, but instead it imports much of its electricity from neighbouring India.
• Experts say it could be generating 83,000 megawatts, but its total installed generation capacity currently stands at less than 2% of that.
• Demand for electricity has long outstripped supply in Nepal due to chronic under-investment and inefficiencies in the power network. The result has been crippling for domestic industry and deterred foreign investment.
• Crucial infrastructure development has flagged in the years of political paralysis that followed the end of the Maoist insurgency in 2006 and the overthrow of the monarchy two years later.
• India and China have vied for influence in the small country, with both pumping money into Nepal through large-scale infrastructure projects.
• The CGGC is currently building three smaller hydropower plants in Nepal and has completed another one, though critics have complained that the projects have consistently run over time and over budget.

Business and Economy

Business activity in the services sector picked up pace in May

• Business activity in the services sector picked up pace in May, driven mainly by an increase in new business and an easing of input costs, according to a survey.
• The Nikkei India Services Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI) rose to 52.2 in May from 50.2 in April. A reading above 50 indicates expansion in business activity while one below 50 denotes a contraction.
• The pick-up in service sector growth seen mid-way through the first quarter suggests that GDP could expand at a faster rate should growth momentum be maintained in June, though there are downside perils to this.
• It said service providers hired additional staff in May to cope with the greater workload and that the rate of jobs growth accelerated to the fastest in almost four years in that month.

RBI says PCA does not constrain normal banking operations for the public

• The RBI said its prompt corrective action (PCA), initiated in the case of some public sector banks with high NPAs, is a supervision tool and does not constrain normal banking operations for the public.
• The Reserve Bank has put Dena Bank, IDBI Bank, Indian Overseas Bank and UCO Bank, under the PCA in view of their mounting non-performing assets.
• RBI’s statement comes in the backdrop of “some misinformed communication” circulating in some sections of media as well as social media platforms, about the PCA framework, it said.

Contribution of India to the overall U.S. trade deficit is too low

• India Inc. has told the U.S. government that contribution of India to the overall U.S. trade deficit is too low to create any significant adverse impact on the American economy.
• Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) has also said: “In light of the large market share that U.S. products have in the Indian market, it is clear that the balance of trade issue that is perceived is not due to a market access problem.”
• This development assumes significance as the $24.3 billion goods trade deficit that the U.S. had with India in 2016 may prominently figure in the meeting between Prime Minister Narendra Modi and President Donald Trump.
• While the Trump administration may also take up its concerns over the protracted negotiations on the proposed Bilateral Investment Treaty, New Delhi would raise issues such as visa curbs and non-tariff barriers of the U.S. affecting India’s exports.
• The Executive Order sought an ‘Omnibus Report’ from the U.S. Commerce Secretary and the USTR (in consultation with other U.S. government departments/agencies) within 90 days on ‘Significant Trade Deficits’.
• Thus, India’s share in overall U.S. trade deficit is too insignificant to cause any adverse impact on the U.S. economy.”
• As against this, China’s contribution to the overall trade deficit of the U.S. during 2011-2015 was 43.9% (average), while that of Japan was 9.4%. Germany (8.1%), Canada (4.4%), Mexico (8.2%) and Saudi Arabia (3.5%) were higher, the CII showed.
• The CII said though the U.S. is among the few countries that India has a trade surplus with, this must be put in context.

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Current Affairs MCQ for UPSC Exams – 5 June 2017

Ques- Arrange these countries from west to east:

1. Kuwait

2. Bahrain

3. Qatar

4. UAE

A. 1-3-4-2

B. 1-2-3-4

C. 3-1-2-4

D. 3-2-1-4

Ques- Consider the following statements about Nepal.

1. Nepal is a land locked country.

2. Nepal is the member of commonwealth of Nations.

Which of the above statements is/are true

A.      only 1

B.      only 2

C.      Both 1 & 2

D.     Neither 1 nor 2

Ques- The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life is the establishment of.

A. biosphere reserves

B. botanical gardens

C. national parks

D. wildlife sanctuaries

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Union Public Service Commission IAS Preliminary (CSAT) Exam, 2014

Actual Paper of the IAS PRE Exam, held on 24 August 2014 (in Hindi Medium)

• Exam: IAS (Pre.)

• Year: 2014

• Subject: CSAT

• Paper: II

• Medium: Hindi

• Booklet No: A

Click Here to Download IAS (Pre.) CSAT Paper - 2 (Hindi Medium)

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सामान्य अध्ययन प्रारंभिक परीक्षा के लिए ऑनलाइन कोचिंग (पेपर - 1)

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(Download) UPSC IAS Preliminary 2012 : CSAT - Question Paper - II (English)

Subject: CSAT Paper -2

Exam Date: 20th May 2012

Paper : II

File Size: 6.82 MB

File Type: PDF

Click Here for CSAT Paper-II (C-Series) Answer Key

Printed Study Material for UPSC PRELIMS EXAM

Online Coaching Programme for UPSC Exam

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(VIDEO) 3 Years Of Modi Govt. - Lok Sabha TV Insight Discussion

Topic of Discussion:  3 Years Of Modi Govt. - Lok Sabha TV Insight Discussion

Expert Panel: 

(VIDEO) PM Modi's Kashmir Strategy: Implications & Expectations

- Rajya Sabha TV Big Picture Debate 

• Topic of Discussion : PM Modi's Kashmir Strategy: Implications & Expectations- Rajya Sabha TV Big Picture Debate

Expert Panel :

Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (Dog Breeding and Marketing Rules)-2016

Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (Dog Breeding and Marketing Rules), 2016

• Environment minister has recently unveiled draft rules for the prevention of cruelty to dogs, seeking to make dog breeders and sellers accountable.

• The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (Dog Breeding and Marketing) Rules, 2016, propose to make it mandatory for all dog breeders and dog breeding establishments to register themselves with the animal welfare bodies of state governments.

• They also define the breeding requirements/conditions for sale, the requirements to be met by the breeders and the establishments used for breeding or housing dogs.

• They address issues such as health requirements and housing facilities for dogs, conditions for their sale, breeding, micro-chipping and vaccination.

• The rules also make it mandatory for dog breeders to maintain proper records of dogs, their breeds, micro-chip numbers, sale and purchase, death and rehabilitation etc.

• As per rules, every dog breeder would be required to submit yearly reports to the state boards regarding animals sold, traded, bartered or given away in the previous year.

• An inspector authorised by the State Board can inspect the establishment.

• Non-compliance of the proposed Rules will lead to cancellation of the registration of the dog breeder.

Online Crash Course for UPSC PRE Exam

Printed Study Material for UPSC Pre General Studies (Paper-1)

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Climate Financing Initiatives : Environment for UPSC Exams

Climate Financing Initiatives

• Climate finance refers to local, national or transnational financing, which may be drawn from public, private and alternative sources of financing.

• It is critical to addressing climate change because large-scale investments are required to significantly reduce emissions, notably in sectors that emit large quantities of greenhouse gases.

• It is equally important for adaptation, for which significant financial resources will be similarly required to allow countries to adapt to the adverse effects and reduce the impacts of climate change.

Different types of climate finance initiatives:

• Global Environment Facility (GEF) is a multilateral body of governments, civil society, banks etc. acting as a financial mechanism to environmental conventions like UNFCCC etc.

• Green Climate Fund was created by UNFCCC in 2011 as an operating entity of financial mechanism of the UNFCCC.

• Carbon taxes and cess by the national governments.

• Clean Development Mechanism – It involves investment by developed countries in emission reduction projects in developing countries

• Joint Implementation (JI) - JI enables developed countries to carry out emission reduction projects in other developed countries.

• Perform Achieve Trade (PAT) - It is a market-based trading scheme under National Mission on Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE). It involves trading in energy efficiency certificates to offset emissions.

• Climate Bond Initiative- It is an international, investor- focused not-for-profit organization It's the only organisation working to mobilize $100 trillion bond market for climate change solutions.

• Green Bond- The capital for green bond is raised to fund ‘green’ projects like renewable energy, emission reductions etc. First Green Bond was issued by World Bank in 2007. There is no standard definition of green bonds as of now.

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Printed Study Material for UPSC Pre General Studies (Paper-1)

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Microbeads : Environment for UPSC Exams

Microbeads

• Microbeads are manufactured solid plastic particles of less than five millimeters in their largest dimension.

• They are most frequently made of polyethylene but can be of other petrochemical plastics such as polypropylene and polystyrene.

• They are used in exfoliating personal care products, toothpastes and in biomedical and health-science research.

• Microbeads can cause plastic particle water pollution and pose an environmental hazard for aquatic animals in freshwater and ocean water.

• In the US, the Microbead-Free Waters Act of 2015 phases out microbeads in rinse off cosmetics by July 2017. The Netherlands was the first country to ban cosmetic microbeads in 2014.

• Microbeads are washed down the drain, can pass unfiltered through the sewage treatment plants and make their way into rivers and canals, resulting in plastic particle water pollution.

• A variety of wildlife, from small fish, amphibians and turtles to birds and larger mammals, mistake microbeads for their food source.

• This ingestion of plastics introduces the potential for toxicity not only to these animals but to other species higher in the food chain.

• Greenpeace refers to it as a “toxic time bomb”. Once in the marine environment microplastics can both release and absorb toxins, which can then move throughout the foodchain.

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Printed Study Material for UPSC Pre General Studies (Paper-1)

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Environment for UPSC Exams

Environment Topics for Exam:

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Join Online Test Series for IAS (Pre.) Exam

IAS Mains General Studies Study Kit

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Current Affairs Daily Voice Notes

Spotlight/News Analysis (7 June 2017):

• Topic of Discussion: Discussion on forecast of Monsoon
• Expert Panel:    Dr. Srikant K Panigrihi (Environmentalist) Prashant Sood ( Journalist)

Player-1:

SWAYAM Prabha-Educational Contents through DTH

Government has approved a project to launch the ‘SWAYAM Prabha’-a project for operationalising 32 Direct to Home (DTH) Television Channels for providing high quality educational content to all teachers, students and citizens across the country interested in lifelong learning. There will be new content of four hours every day, which would be telecast six times a day allowing the student to choose the time of his/her convenience.

The main features of SWAYAM Prabha would be as under:-

(i) Curriculum based course contents covering diverse disciplines such as arts, science, commerce, performing arts, social sciences and humanities subjects, engineering, technology, law, medicine, agriculture etc.
(ii) Covers all level of education: School education, undergraduate, postgraduate, engineering, out of school children, vocational courses and teacher training.  The 32 channels are proposed to be launched before September 2016. Initially the programmes will be in English but with the passage of time the programmes will be launched in regional languages also.

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Automotive Mission Plan, 2016-26

The Automotive Mission Plan [AMP 2026] envisages creation of 65 million jobs.

The salient features of the Automotive Mission Plan 2016-26 [AMP 2026] are:-

(i) The Indian Automotive industry to be a top job creator – 65 million additional jobs.
(ii) The Indian Automotive industry to be the prime mover of Manufacturing sector and “Make in India” Programme.
(iii) The Indian Automotive industry to aim at increasing exports of vehicles by 5 times and components by 7.5 times.
(iv) For success of AMP 2026, there is a need of coordinated and stable policy regime for the automotive sector.
(v) Specific interventions are envisaged to sustain and improve manufacturing competitiveness and to address challenges of environment and safety.

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Current Affairs for IAS Exams - 7 June 2017

::National::

The country is likely to get more rain than was originally forecast

• The country is likely to get more rain than was originally forecast in April, the India Meteorological Department (IMD) has said.

• Rainfall would be ‘normal’ and around 98% of the Long Period Average (LPA), the IMD said in an update. This is 2% more than the 96% or ‘near normal’ rain it had forecast in April.

• In the update, the IMD also said rains in July and August, the most important monsoon months for the kharif crops, would be 96% and 99% respectively, of what was normal.

• Spatially too, the IMD expects a balanced geographical distribution.

• The season rainfall is likely to be 96% of the historical average in north-west India, 100% of the LPA over central India, 99% of the LPA over the south peninsula, and 96% of the LPA over north-east India, with a model error of ± 8 %.

• The LPA is a 50-year average of the monsoon rains in India.

child-friendly HIV drug in oral pellet form

• The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) has registered the child-friendly HIV drug in oral pellet form, ending months of uncertainty for the HIV community.

• This has opened up crucial supplies from Cipla Pharmaceuticals, a market leader in the HIV segment, to the National AIDS Control Programme (NACO), which had been struggling to source quality assured paediatric formulations of the drug.

• India ran out of Lopinavir syrup, a child-friendly HIV drug, in March after Cipla — the sole manufacturer of the drug — stopped production consequent to non-payment by the Health Ministry.

• The drug’s adult version has to be swallowed whole and thus cannot be administered to infants and young children.

• In March, over 600 children had written a letter to Prime Minister Narendra Modi, asking for a quick resolution to the matter.

• On May 25, an expert committee of the CDSCO had permitted the child-friendly and heat-stable pellet formulation of the HIV drug lopinavir/ritonavir (LPV/r) to be registered.

• The pellets, which come in capsules and are dosed by weight, can be sprinkled (but not stirred or crushed) over a small amount of soft food. For infants — who must be able to swallow them — the pellets can be added to a spoonful of breast milk or put on the infant’s tongue.

IMD says El Niño is weaker than predicted

• The India Meteorological Department’s optimism about more rainfall is largely premised on hopes that a strong El Nino, which, as per its earlier forecast, was expected to surface in the later half of the monsoon, would now be much weaker than anticipated.

• In April, the IMD had said there was a 38% chance of near normal rains (96% of the LPA). Now the models showed a 50% chance.

• The El Nino — characterised by surface waters of the equatorial Pacific warming up by more than half a degree — is known to dry up monsoon rain every six out of 10 years.

• A positive Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) is said to buffer the impact of El Nino and contribute to better rains.

• The IOD is a swing in surface temperatures that turns the western Indian Ocean alternately warmer and then colder than the eastern part of the ocean.

• In April, the IMD shifted to using a new monsoon forecast system, called a dynamical model that works by supercomputers simulating the weather and extrapolating it.

• It plans to make this as the base for all future forecasts, ranging from short-term weekly forecasts to the trajectory of the four-month- long monsoon.

• However, for its June update, the IMD chose to rely on its workhorse statistical model that forecasts the monsoon based on six meteorological parameters.

• The dynamical model, according to the IMD statement, showed monsoon rains to be 89 cm or 100% of the LPA.

• Private weather forecaster Skymet said it was sticking to its “below normal” forecast at 95% (with an error margin of +/-5%) of the LPA. Rainfall for July stood at 94%, while for August it was 93% of the historical average.

Scientists have discovered the hottest known planet

• Scientists have discovered the hottest known planet located 650 light years from Earth, which is warmer than most stars in the universe and sports a giant, glowing gas tail like a comet.

• The Jupiter-like planet orbits a massive star KELT-9 every day and a half, researchers said.

• With a day-side temperature peaking at 4,326 degree Celsius, the newly discovered exoplanet, designated KELT-9b, is hotter than most stars and only 926 degree Celsius cooler than our Sun.

• The ultraviolet radiation from the star it orbits is so brutal that the planet may be evaporating away under the intense glare, producing a glowing gas tail.

• The gas giant 2.8 times more massive than Jupiter but only half as dense, because the extreme radiation from its host star has caused its atmosphere to puff up like a balloon.

Current Affairs MCQ for UPSC Exams – 7 June 2017

Ques- Indian ocean dipole, a metereological phenomena measures temperature between which of the following?

A. Indian and Pacific ocean
B. Indian ocean and Bay of Bengal
C. Indian ocean and Arabian sea
D. None of the above

Ques- Long Period Average used by IMD is an average of which of the following?

A. Average of total rain of India in 100 years
B. Average of monsoonal rain fall in India in 100 years
C. Average of total rain of India in 50 years
D. Average of monsoonal rain fall in India in 50 years

India’s home secretary Rajiv Mehrishi says that while being a ‘jack of all trades’ is probably not ideal for most professional pursuits, it is an approach that works well for those aspiring to the civil services in India.

The 1978-batch Rajasthan cadre officer has written a book, “India - 2017 Yearbook” to help the thousands who prepare for the civil services preliminary and mains examinations every year. The book, released by home minister Rajnath Singh in the national capital on Monday, was termed as ‘Mehrishi’s Kunji’ by fellow civil servant Amitabh Kant.

Here are a few tips Mehrishi shared with HT:

1.Read a lot and keep yourself abreast of all events. Be interested in anything and everything.

2. Knowing about a bit about everything: history, science, geography, computers etc, helps.

3. Prioritise your work. Studying for 14 or 18 hours won’t help as much as the quality of effort. There is no formula that 18 hours of work guarantees a civil service seat.

4.There is much emphasis on subject knowledge now, unlike in the past. Therefore, candidates who have a medical or engineering background and know their topics well will have an edge.

5. Join the services young as it will give you a better shot at the top post after you join.

6.A civil servant is best served when he or she has a very eclectic mind. Take interest in everything.

>>Click Here to Read More..

Courtesy: Hindustan Times

CENTRAL ARMED POLICE FORCES (ACs) EXAMINATION 2016

FINAL MERIT ORDER RESULT (RESERVE LIST)

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S.NO. ROLLNO  NAME

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Click Here to Download Result

Courtesy: CAPF (AC)